Notice what this particular principle does and does not include. It criminalises knowingly using force likely to cause injury or annoyance to a person, and unlike some related rules, it does not build in any exception for good faith or good intentions on the part of the person using the force.
X pulled up the woman's veil without asking her, and doing so in public, to a stranger, without her consent, is plainly likely to cause her annoyance, which X could reasonably be expected to know. That satisfies the knowledge and likely effect elements the principle requires, and nothing in the principle asks whether X had a social cause behind the act or how well regarded X is generally.
Motive, reputation, and openness of the act are all factors that sit outside the definition given, they explain why X did it and how, but they do not erase the fact that force was used on a person in a way likely to cause her annoyance without her consent. That is what the principle punishes.
So the correct answer is X has committed an offence by use of criminal force.
Asking what the principle would need to say for each option to be correct exposes the gap in three of the four choices.
Since none of the exceptions the other three options rely on actually exist in the principle's wording, the option finding an offence is the one that matches the rule as it stands.
Therefore, the correct answer is X has committed an offence by use of criminal force.