Question:medium

The Boolean expression $(p \implies q) \wedge (q \implies \sim p)$ is equivalent to :

Show Hint

Truth tables are definitive but algebraic simplification is faster. For this expression, if $p$ is True, the second part $(q \implies \text{False})$ forces $q$ to be False, but then $(p \implies q)$ becomes $(\text{True} \implies \text{False})$, which is False. Thus if $p$ is True, the result is False. This behavior matches $\sim p$.
Updated On: Mar 25, 2026
  • $p$
  • $q$
  • $\sim p$
  • $\sim q$
Show Solution

The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

To solve the given problem, we need to simplify the Boolean expression \((p \implies q) \wedge (q \implies \sim p)\). Let's break down each part of the expression:

  1. Understand the implication in logical expressions:
    • The implication \(p \implies q\) is logically equivalent to \(\sim p \vee q\), which means "not \(p\) or \(q\)".
    • Similarly, \(q \implies \sim p\) is equivalent to \(\sim q \vee \sim p\), meaning "not \(q\) or not \(p\)".
  2. Substitute these equivalents back into the expression:
    • The expression \((p \implies q) \wedge (q \implies \sim p)\) becomes \((\sim p \vee q) \wedge (\sim q \vee \sim p)\).
  3. Simplify the expression using Boolean algebra:
    • We can use the distribution law to distribute \(\wedge\) over \(\vee\):
    • \((\sim p \vee q) \wedge (\sim q \vee \sim p)\) simplifies to \((\sim p \wedge \sim q) \vee (q \wedge \sim p)\).
    • Here, \(\sim p\) is common in both parts and can be factored out:
    • \(\sim p \wedge (\sim q \vee q)\). The expression \((\sim q \vee q)\) is a tautology because it always evaluates to true regardless of the values of \(q\).
    • Therefore, the expression simplifies to \(\sim p\).

As a result, the Boolean expression \((p \implies q) \wedge (q \implies \sim p)\) is equivalent to \(\sim p\).

Thus, the correct answer is: \(\sim p\).

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