The Correct Option is D
Solution and Explanation
Approach: Assign total work as a convenient LCM-style number so the rates are whole, then solve for the job size from the two phases directly.
Step 1: Take efficiencies in the ratio Ankita : Bipin : Chandan $=4:2:1$. Let the whole job be $W$ units (unknown for now), with Chandan's rate $=c$ units/day, Bipin $=2c$, Ankita $=4c$.
Step 2: Work in phase 1 (all three, 20 days) $=20(4c+2c+c)=140c$. Work in phase 2 (Ankita + Chandan, 40 days) $=40(4c+c)=200c$.
Step 3: The whole job is done: $140c+200c=W$, so $W=340c$.
Step 4: Chandan alone works at $c$ units/day, so time $=\dfrac{W}{c}=\dfrac{340c}{c}=340$ days. The unknown unit $c$ cancels, which is exactly why we never needed its actual value.
Answer: 340 days.