To solve this question, we will use the formula for the magnetic force per unit length between two parallel current-carrying wires. The formula is given by:
\[\frac{F}{L} = \frac{\mu_0 \cdot I_1 \cdot I_2}{2\pi \cdot d}\]where:
Since both wires carry the same current \(I\), the equation becomes:
\[\frac{2 \times 10^{-6}}{1} = \frac{(4\pi \times 10^{-7}) \cdot I^2}{2\pi \cdot 0.20}\]We can simplify this equation to solve for \(I\):
\[2 \times 10^{-6} = \frac{2 \times 10^{-7} \cdot I^2}{0.20}\]Multiplying both sides by \(0.20\) gives:
\[(2 \times 10^{-6}) \times 0.20 = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cdot I^2\]Simplifying, we get:
\[4 \times 10^{-7} = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cdot I^2\]Divide both sides by \(2 \times 10^{-7}\):
\[2 = I^2\]Taking the square root of both sides yields:
\[I = \sqrt{2} \approx 1.414 \, \text{A}\]Therefore, the current \(I\) is approximately 1.4 A. Hence, the correct answer is 1.4.