Question:medium
The line \( x = \frac{\pi}{4} \) divides the area of the region bounded by \( y = \sin x \), \( y = \cos x \) and the x-axis \( (0 \le x \le \frac{\pi}{2}) \) into areas \( A_{1} \) and \( A_{2} \). Then \( A_{1} : A_{2} \) equals
The line \( x = \frac{\pi}{4} \) divides the area of the region bounded by \( y = \sin x \), \( y = \cos x \) and the x-axis \( (0 \le x \le \frac{\pi}{2}) \) into areas \( A_{1} \) and \( A_{2} \). Then \( A_{1} : A_{2} \) equals
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Due to symmetry between sine and cosine around $\pi/4$, these areas are identical.
Updated On: Apr 10, 2026
- 4:1
- 3:1
- 2:1
- 1:1
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The Correct Option is D
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