Let, \( I = \pi^2 \int_{-1}^{1} \left| x \sin \pi x \right| dx \)
\( = \pi^2 \left( \int_{-1}^{0} (-x \sin \pi x) dx + \int_{0}^{1} (x \sin \pi x) dx \right) \)
We consider the integral \( \int x \sin \pi x dx \).
Using integration by parts, we get \( \int x \sin \pi x dx = -\frac{x}{\pi} \cos \pi x + \frac{1}{\pi^2} \sin \pi x \).
Applying the limits:
\( \int_{0}^{1} x \sin \pi x dx = \left[ -\frac{x}{\pi} \cos \pi x + \frac{1}{\pi^2} \sin \pi x \right]_0^1 = \left( -\frac{1}{\pi} \cos \pi + \frac{1}{\pi^2} \sin \pi \right) - (0) = \frac{1}{\pi} \)
\( \int_{-1}^{0} (-x \sin \pi x) dx = \left[ \frac{x}{\pi} \cos \pi x - \frac{1}{\pi^2} \sin \pi x \right]_{-1}^0 = (0) - \left( \frac{-1}{\pi} \cos (-\pi) - \frac{1}{\pi^2} \sin (-\pi) \right) = - \left( -\frac{1}{\pi} (-1) \right) = -\frac{1}{\pi} \)
Therefore,
\( I = \pi^2 \left( -\frac{1}{\pi} + \frac{1}{\pi} \right) = 0 \)