Question:medium

Let \( F(\alpha) = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \alpha & -\sin \alpha & 0 \\ \sin \alpha & \cos \alpha & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \), where \( \alpha \in \mathbb{R} \). Then \( [F(\alpha)]^{-1} \) is equal to:

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Rotation matrices are orthogonal, meaning their inverses are identical to their transposes.
Updated On: Nov 26, 2025
  • \( F(-\alpha) \)
  • \( [F(\alpha)]^{-1} \)
  • \( F(2\alpha) \)
  • None of these
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

The matrix \( F(\alpha) \) is a rotation matrix. A property of rotation matrices is that their inverse equals their transpose, expressed as \( [F(\alpha)]^{-1} = [F(\alpha)]^T \).

This relationship can be represented as \( F(-\alpha) \), as demonstrated by the equation:

\[ F(\alpha) \cdot F(-\alpha) = \begin{bmatrix} \cos^2 \alpha + \sin^2 \alpha & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & \cos^2 \alpha + \sin^2 \alpha & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} = I, \]

where \( I \) denotes the identity matrix and \( \cos^2 \alpha + \sin^2 \alpha = 1 \).

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