Question:medium

\(\begin{array}{l}(p \land r )\Leftrightarrow ( p \land (\sim q))\end{array}\)is equivalent to (~ p) when r is

Updated On: Mar 19, 2026
  • p
  • ∼p
  • q
  • ∼q
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The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

       To solve the given logical equivalence problem, we need to analyze the expression:

\((p \land r) \Leftrightarrow (p \land (\sim q))\).

This expression states that the conjunction of \(p\) and \(r\) is logically equivalent to the conjunction of \(p\) and not \(q\). We need to determine the condition of \(r\) that makes this equivalence equivalent to \(\sim p\).

  1. Consider the truth table for logical statements involved:
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