Question:medium

Let \(S_n=\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{n}{n^2+k}\), for \(n\in N\). Then the sequence \(\{S_n\}\) is ____.

Show Hint

If a sequence has a finite limit, then it is convergent. Here, \(S_n\to 1\), so the sequence is convergent.
  • Convergent
  • Divergent to \(\infty\)
  • Bounded but not convergent
  • Neither bounded nor diverges to \(\infty\)
Show Solution

The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
We are given a sequence defined by a sum and need to determine its convergence properties. A common method for sequences defined by sums is to use the Squeeze (or Sandwich) Theorem by finding lower and upper bounds for the terms in the sum.

Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The Squeeze Theorem: If \(a_n \le b_n \le c_n\) for all \(n\) beyond some point, and \(\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = \lim_{n \to \infty} c_n = L\), then \(\lim_{n \to \infty} b_n = L\). We will bound the sum \(S_n = \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{n}{n^2+k}\). For \(1 \le k \le n\), the denominator \(n^2+k\) satisfies: \[ n^2+1 \le n^2+k \le n^2+n \] Taking the reciprocal reverses the inequalities: \[ \frac{1}{n^2+n} \le \frac{1}{n^2+k} \le \frac{1}{n^2+1} \] Multiplying by n: \[ \frac{n}{n^2+n} \le \frac{n}{n^2+k} \le \frac{n}{n^2+1} \]

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

We have the inequality for the general term: \[ \frac{n}{n^2+n} \le \frac{n}{n^2+k} \le \frac{n}{n^2+1} \] Now, we sum from \(k=1\) to \(n\). The lower and upper bounds do not depend on \(k\), so we are summing them \(n\) times: \[ \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{n}{n^2+n} \le \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{n}{n^2+k} \le \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{n}{n^2+1} \] \[ n \cdot \frac{n}{n^2+n} \le S_n \le n \cdot \frac{n}{n^2+1} \] \[ \frac{n^2}{n(n+1)} \le S_n \le \frac{n^2}{n^2+1} \] \[ \frac{n}{n+1} \le S_n \le \frac{n^2}{n^2+1} \] Now, we find the limits of the lower and upper bounds as \(n \to \infty\): \[ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{n+1} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{1+1/n} = \frac{1}{1+0} = 1 \] \[ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n^2}{n^2+1} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{1+1/n^2} = \frac{1}{1+0} = 1 \] Since \(S_n\) is squeezed between two sequences that both converge to 1, by the Squeeze Theorem, the sequence \(\{S_n\}\) must also converge to 1. Therefore, the sequence is convergent. Note on Discrepancy: The calculation shows the sequence converges. The provided answer key marks (C) "bounded but not convergent". This is a contradiction. There may be a typo in the question. Let's re-read the OCR. It says \(\frac{n}{n^2+k}\). The sum is \(\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{n}{n^2+k}\). The calculation is correct. Let's consider another common form: \(S_n = \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n+k}\). This can be seen as a Riemann sum for \(\int_0^1 \frac{1}{1+x} dx = [\ln(1+x)]_0^1 = \ln(2)\). So this form converges. Let's re-examine the OCR: \(S_n=\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{n}{n^2+k}\). The work above is correct for this expression. The sequence is convergent. The provided answer key is incorrect. The question might have been \(S_n = \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{n}{n+k^2}\) or something else entirely. Given the provided question, the answer should be (A). I will proceed by stating the correct mathematical conclusion.

Step 4: Final Answer:

By the Squeeze Theorem, the sequence \(\{S_n\}\) converges to 1. Thus, the correct option should be (A) Convergent. The provided answer key appears to be incorrect for the question as stated.
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