Question:hard

If $f(x)$ is a twice differentiable function and $f^{\prime}(0)=0$, then $\int_{0}^{\pi/2}(f(x)+f^{\prime\prime}(x))\cos x dx=$

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For integrals pairing functions with their derivatives (like $f+f^{\prime\prime}$), look for cancellation patterns using integration by parts.
Updated On: Jun 3, 2026
  • $f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$
  • $f^{\prime}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$
  • 1
  • 0
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Split the integral.
We need $\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\big(f(x)+f''(x)\big)\cos x\,dx$. We will work on the $f''$ part with integration by parts.
Step 2: Integrate $f''\cos x$ by parts.
Take $u=\cos x$ and $dv=f''(x)\,dx$, so $v=f'(x)$: \[ \int_0^{\pi/2} f''\cos x\,dx=\big[f'\cos x\big]_0^{\pi/2}+\int_0^{\pi/2} f'\sin x\,dx. \]
Step 3: Use $f'(0)=0$.
The boundary term is $0-f'(0)=0$. So this part equals $\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2} f'\sin x\,dx$.
Step 4: Integrate by parts again.
Take $u=\sin x$, $dv=f'\,dx$, so $v=f$: \[ \int_0^{\pi/2} f'\sin x\,dx=\big[f\sin x\big]_0^{\pi/2}-\int_0^{\pi/2} f\cos x\,dx=f\!\left(\tfrac{\pi}{2}\right)-\int_0^{\pi/2} f\cos x\,dx. \]
Step 5: Add back the $f\cos x$ part.
The full integral is $\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2} f\cos x\,dx+\left(f\!\left(\tfrac{\pi}{2}\right)-\int_0^{\pi/2} f\cos x\,dx\right)$.
Step 6: Cancel.
The two integral pieces cancel, leaving $f\!\left(\tfrac{\pi}{2}\right)$. \[ \boxed{f\!\left(\tfrac{\pi}{2}\right)} \]
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