Question:medium

If \( f(x) = \frac{a^x + a^{-x}}{2} \) and \( f(x+y) + f(x-y) = k f(x)f(y) \), then \( k \) is equal to

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Expressions of type $\frac{a^x+a^{-x}}{2}$ behave like $\cosh x$.
Updated On: Jun 17, 2026
  • $2$
  • $4$
  • $-2$
  • None of these
Show Solution

The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

To solve the given problem, we need to analyze the function \( f(x) = \frac{a^x + a^{-x}}{2} \) and the identity \( f(x+y) + f(x-y) = k f(x)f(y) \).

Let's evaluate the given function: \(f(x) = \frac{a^x + a^{-x}}{2}\)is the definition of a hyperbolic cosine function. In trigonometry, it is known as the hyperbolic cosine identity: \(\cosh(x) = \frac{e^x + e^{-x}}{2}\).

The functional equation is now: \(f(x+y) + f(x-y) = k f(x)f(y)\)which translates to the well-known identity for hyperbolic functions: \(\cosh(x+y) + \cosh(x-y) = 2 \cosh(x)\cosh(y)\)

Thus, substituting: \(f(x+y) = \cosh(x+y), \quad f(x-y) = \cosh(x-y), \quad f(x) = \cosh(x), \quad f(y) = \cosh(y)\)

Combine equations using the identity: \(\cosh(x+y) + \cosh(x-y) = 2 \cosh(x)\cosh(y)\)

Therefore, equating both sides, we have: \(f(x+y) + f(x-y) = 2 f(x) f(y)\)

Comparing with the original equation: \(k f(x) f(y) \Rightarrow k = 2\)

However, the provided solution states that the correct answer is "None of these," suggesting a misunderstanding or misinterpretation of the options. Assuming no errors in arithmetic or assumptions, the problem answering may have implied a specific predefined context or constraint that defines the "None of these" outcome.

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