Question:medium

If $f(1)=1$, $f^{\prime}(1)=3$, then the derivative of $f(f(f(x)))+(f(x))^{2}$ at $x=1$ is

Show Hint

Logic Tip: Writing out the chain rule carefully is the only hurdle here. A 3-layer nested function $f(g(h(x)))$ will always produce exactly 3 derivative terms multiplied together: $f'(g(h(x))) \cdot g'(h(x)) \cdot h'(x)$. Because $f(1)=1$, evaluating the nested parts acts as an "identity" pipeline, maintaining the value at $1$.
Updated On: Apr 28, 2026
  • 12
  • 19
  • 23
  • 33
Show Solution

The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

Was this answer helpful?
0