To solve this problem, we need to understand the relationship between the torque experienced by a bar magnet in a magnetic field and the angle it makes with the field.
The torque (\tau) experienced by a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field is given by the formula:
\(\tau = MB \sin \theta\)
where M is the magnetic moment of the bar magnet, B is the magnetic field strength, and \theta is the angle between the magnetic moment and the magnetic field.
Initially, the angle is \theta, so the initial torque is:
\(\tau_1 = MB \sin \theta\)
When the angle is doubled, the new angle becomes 2\theta and the new torque is:
\(\tau_2 = MB \sin 2\theta\)
We know that \sin 2\theta = 2 \sin \theta \cos \theta, thus:
\(\tau_2 = MB \cdot 2 \sin \theta \cos \theta\)
The problem states that the torque increases by 41.4\% when the angle is doubled. Therefore, we can write:
\(\tau_2 = \tau_1 + 0.414 \tau_1\)
This simplifies to:
\(\tau_2 = 1.414 \tau_1\)
Substituting the expressions for \tau_1 and \tau_2:
MB \cdot 2 \sin \theta \cos \theta = 1.414 \times MB \cdot \sin \theta
Since MB is a common term, it can be canceled out from both sides:
2 \sin \theta \cos \theta = 1.414 \sin \theta
This simplifies to:
2 \cos \theta = 1.414
Solving for \cos \theta gives:
\(\cos \theta = \frac{1.414}{2} = 0.707\)
This value corresponds to an angle of 45^{\circ}. Therefore, the initial angle made by the magnet with the magnetic field is:
45^{\circ}
In a uniform magnetic field of \(0.049 T\), a magnetic needle performs \(20\) complete oscillations in \(5\) seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is \(9.8 \times 10 kg m^2\). If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is \(x \times 10^{-5} Am^2\); then the value of '\(x\)' is
