Question:medium

Which of the following correctly matches a gynaecological cause of amenorrhoea with its mechanism?

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Pick the pairing where the named condition truly matches its mechanism - only one is internally correct.
Updated On: Jun 25, 2026
  • Asherman syndrome - intrauterine adhesions (endometrial scarring after curettage)
  • PCOD - hypogonadotropic hypogonadism with low LH
  • Sheehan syndrome - primary ovarian (gonadal) failure
  • Premature ovarian failure (POF) - outflow tract obstruction with normal FSH
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

This match-the-following is best solved by knowing the true level of the defect for each cause of amenorrhoea.

$\textbf{Asherman}$ acts at the uterus itself - scarring and adhesions of the endometrial cavity, typically following a postpartum or post-abortion curettage, so menstruation stops despite normal ovarian and pituitary hormones. $\textbf{Sheehan}$ is a pituitary problem: ischaemic necrosis of the gland after postpartum haemorrhage lowers FSH and LH (hypogonadotropic). $\textbf{POF}$ is an ovarian problem where the gonads fail and FSH rises markedly (hypergonadotropic). $\textbf{PCOD}$ features chronic anovulation with a high LH:FSH ratio and androgen excess.

Checking the options, only the first - Asherman paired with intrauterine adhesions from endometrial scarring - states the mechanism correctly. The remaining three deliberately swap mechanisms (PCOD is not low-LH, Sheehan is not ovarian, POF is not an outflow block).

\[\boxed{\text{Asherman} = \text{intrauterine adhesions}}\]
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