Question:medium

Two simple pendulums having lengths \(\ell _{1}\) and \(\ell _{2}\) with negligible string mass undergo angular displacement \(\theta _{1}\) and \(\theta _{2}\) from their mean positions respectively. If the angular acceleration of both pendulums are same, then which equation is correct ?

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For small oscillations the angular acceleration is g over l times the angular displacement.
Updated On: Nov 12, 2026
  • \(\theta _{1}\ell _{2}^{2}=\theta _{2}\ell _{1}^{2}\)
  • \(\theta _{1}\ell _{1}=\theta _{2}\ell _{2}\)
  • \(\theta _{1}\ell _{1}^{2}=\theta _{2}\ell _{2}^{2}\)
  • \(\theta _{1}\ell _{2}=\theta _{2}\ell _{1}\)
Show Solution

The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Torque method
Restoring torque $=-mg\ell\theta$ and $I=m\ell^2$.

Step 2: Angular acceleration
$\alpha=\dfrac{mg\ell\theta}{m\ell^2}=\dfrac{g\theta}{\ell}$.

Step 3: Equate
Equal $\alpha$ gives $\dfrac{\theta_1}{\ell_1}=\dfrac{\theta_2}{\ell_2}$, option (D).

Final Answer:
The relation is theta1 l2 equals theta2 l1. \[ \boxed{\text{(D) }\theta_{1}\ell_{2}=\theta_{2}\ell_{1}} \]
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