Question:easy

The Variance of the following probability distribution of X is
X\(0\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)
P(X)\(q^3\)\(3q^2p\)\(3qp^2\)\(p^3\)
where \(0 < p < 1,q = 1-p\)

Show Hint

This is a binomial distribution with n = 3.
Updated On: Oct 1, 2026
  • \(3p^2q\)
  • \(3pq\)
  • \(3pq^2\)
  • \(3q\)
Show Solution

The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Sum of Bernoulli trials:
$X$ is the sum of 3 independent trials, each with variance $pq$.

Step 2: Add:
Variances add for independent trials: $pq+pq+pq=3pq$.

Step 3: Select:
Option (B). The others do not reduce to $3pq$.

Final Answer:
Each of the three trials contributes pq. \[ \boxed{B} \]
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