Question:medium

The sequence \(\{a_n = \frac{1}{n^2}; n>0\}\) is

Show Hint

For sequences of the form \(\frac{1}{n^p}\), if \(p>0\), the limit as \(n \to \infty\) is always 0, meaning the sequence converges to 0.
Updated On: Feb 18, 2026
  • convergent
  • divergent
  • oscillates finitely
  • oscillates infinitely
Show Solution

The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Concept Overview:
A sequence's convergence is determined by evaluating the limit of its general term, \(a_n\), as \(n\) approaches infinity. A finite limit indicates convergence; an infinite or non-existent limit indicates divergence.

Step 2: Core Formula:
Evaluate the following limit: \[ \lim_{n \to \infty} a_n \]
Step 3: Step-by-Step Solution:
Given the sequence \(a_n = \frac{1}{n^2}\), we find the limit as \(n\) approaches infinity:\[ \lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n^2} \]As \(n\) tends towards infinity, \(n^2\) also increases without bound, causing \(\frac{1}{n^2}\) to approach 0.\[ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n^2} = 0 \]
Step 4: Conclusion:
Because the sequence's limit is 0, a finite value, the sequence converges.
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