Question:medium

The magnetic moment of an iron bar is \( M \). It is now bent in such a way that it forms an arc section of a circle subtending an angle of \( 60^\circ \) at the centre. The magnetic moment of the arc section is

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The general formula for the new magnetic moment \( M' \) of a bar magnet of initial moment \( M \) bent into an arc of angle \( \theta \) (in radians) is:
\[ M' = \frac{2M \sin(\theta/2)}{\theta} \]
For \( \theta = \frac{\pi}{3} \) (\( 60^\circ \)):
\[ M' = \frac{2M \sin(30^\circ)}{\pi/3} = \frac{2M(1/2)}{\pi/3} = \frac{3M}{\pi} \]
Memorizing this formula saves a lot of derivation time during exams!
Updated On: May 28, 2026
  • \( \frac{3M}{\pi} \)
  • \( \frac{4M}{\pi} \)
  • \( \frac{M}{\pi} \)
  • \( \frac{2M}{\pi} \)
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Magnetic moment (\(M\)) of a bar magnet is the product of its pole strength (\(m\)) and the effective length (\(L\)) between the poles.
When a bar magnet is bent, its pole strength remains unchanged, but the effective distance (the straight-line distance between the poles) changes.
The new magnetic moment is \(M' = m \times l\), where \(l\) is the chord length.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Initial moment: \(M = m \cdot L\).
Length of arc: \(L = R \theta\) (where \(\theta\) is in radians).
Chord length (effective length): \(l = 2R \sin(\theta/2)\).
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The angle is \(\theta = 60^\circ = \frac{\pi}{3}\) radians.
Step 1: Relate the original length \(L\) to the radius \(R\) of the arc.
\[L = R\theta = R \left(\frac{\pi}{3}\right) \implies R = \frac{3L}{\pi}\]
Step 2: Find the new effective distance \(l\) between the ends of the bent bar.
\[l = 2R \sin\left(\frac{60^\circ}{2}\right) = 2R \sin 30^\circ\]
\[l = 2R \times \frac{1}{2} = R\]
Step 3: Calculate the new magnetic moment \(M'\).
\[M' = m \cdot l = m \cdot R\]
Substitute the value of \(R\) from Step 1:
\[M' = m \cdot \left(\frac{3L}{\pi}\right)\]
Since the original magnetic moment is \(M = m \cdot L\):
\[M' = \frac{3M}{\pi}\]
This corresponds to option (A).
Step 4: Final Answer:
The new magnetic moment is reduced by the ratio of the chord length to the arc length, resulting in \(3M/\pi\).
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