To solve this problem, we need to determine the magnetic force acting on a charged particle. The magnetic force experienced by a charged particle in a magnetic field is given by the Lorentz force formula:
\(F = q (\vec{v} \times \vec{B})\)
Where:
First, calculate the cross product \(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\):
\(\vec{v} \times \vec{B} = (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}) \times 10^6 \, ms^{-1} \times 2\hat{j} \, T\)
The cross product calculation:
\(\vec{v} \times \vec{B} = 2 \times 10^6 \times 2 (\hat{i} \times \hat{j}) + 3 \times 10^6 \times 2 (\hat{j} \times \hat{j})\)
Therefore:
\(\vec{v} \times \vec{B} = 4 \times 10^6 \, \hat{k}\)
Now, calculate the magnetic force \(F\):
\(F = q \times (4 \times 10^6 \, \hat{k}) = (-2 \times 10^{-6}) \times 4 \times 10^6 \, \hat{k}\)
This simplifies to:
\(F = -8 \hat{k} \, N\)
The force is \(8 \, N\) in the negative z-direction.
Conclusion: The correct option is \(8 \, N\) in - z direction.