Both age and height follow a normal (bell curve) distribution, just with different centers and spreads. The question is really asking: if we go the SAME number of standard deviations above the mean of age as we go above the mean of height, do we land on values with the same probability of being exceeded? Yes, because the shape of every normal curve, once you standardize it, is identical, so equal probabilities always correspond to equal "number of standard deviations from the mean".
Adding that to the mean height: $h = 160 + 11.67 = 171.67$ cm (rounded to two decimal places).
Let's summarize:
So the required height is about 171.67 cm.