The key idea here is that the Cantor set $C$ has Lebesgue measure zero, so let's recompute the measure of $C$ from scratch and then see why the values of $f$ on $C$ never affect the integral.
The Cantor set is built by repeatedly removing the open middle third of each remaining interval. At step $1$ we remove a piece of length $\tfrac13$, at step $2$ we remove $2$ pieces of length $\tfrac19$ each, and at step $n$ we remove $2^{n-1}$ pieces of length $\tfrac{1}{3^n}$. The total length removed is the geometric series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \tfrac{2^{n-1}}{3^n} = \tfrac13\cdot\dfrac{1}{1-\tfrac23}=1$. Since we started with an interval of length $1$ and removed a total length of $1$, the Cantor set has Lebesgue measure $0$.
Because $m(C)=0$, no matter how large $x^{2026}$ gets on $C$, the piece $\int_C x^{2026}\,dx=0$ (a bounded function integrated over a measure zero set is always $0$). Also, removing the measure zero set $C$ from $[0,\tfrac12]$ or $[\tfrac12,1]$ does not change the Lebesgue integral over those pieces, so we may integrate $\cos(\pi x)$ and $\sin(\pi x)$ over the full sub-intervals as ordinary integrals.
Now compute the two pieces directly. First, $\int_0^{1/2}\cos(\pi x)\,dx = \left[\dfrac{\sin(\pi x)}{\pi}\right]_0^{1/2} = \dfrac{\sin(\pi/2)-\sin 0}{\pi} = \dfrac1\pi$. Second, $\int_{1/2}^{1}\sin(\pi x)\,dx = \left[-\dfrac{\cos(\pi x)}{\pi}\right]_{1/2}^{1} = -\dfrac{\cos\pi}{\pi}+\dfrac{\cos(\pi/2)}{\pi} = \dfrac1\pi+0=\dfrac1\pi$.
Let's summarize:
So the value of the Lebesgue integral of $f$ over $[0,1]$ is $\tfrac{2}{\pi}$.
\[ \boxed{\dfrac{2}{\pi}} \]