Comprehension
International Organisations have had a significant impact on the development of international law, effectively contributing to the establishment of a global constitutional system. According to Henkin, international organisations “represent new laws at its birth, for it is itself a child of law”. For instance, the Charter of the United Nations (UN) and its specialised agencies and other international organisations have played a crucial role in shaping international law. The World Health Organisation (WHO), the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) and the International Labour Organisation (ILO) are among the organisations that have contributed to the significant transformation of international law sources, actors and processes over the past century. Since its establishment with an initial membership of fifty-one states, UN has undergone significant development, becoming a diverse and multidimensional global institution with a current membership of 193 nations. The UN has positioned itself as a global constitutional organisation, striving to safeguard and uphold a minimal world order. Numerous experts in International Law recognise the UN as a crucial international organisation for the maintenance of peace and security.
(Rawa Almakky,“The Role of International Organisations in the Development of International Law: An Analytical Assessment of the United Nations”, International Scientific Journal on LAW and WORLD, Vol. 9 No. 28, 2023)
Question: 1

The Convention on International Civil Aviation is applicable only on:

Updated On: Jan 13, 2026
  • State Aircraft
  • Civil Aircraft
  • War Aircraft
  • All of the above
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

The Chicago Convention governs Civil Aircraft. Article 3 of the Convention differentiates aircraft types, specifying that the Convention excludes state aircraft like military, customs, and police aircraft. Article 3 defines these categories:
  • State Aircraft: Military, customs, and police aircraft are outside the Convention's scope.
  • Civil Aircraft: The Convention's main focus, setting standards for international air transport safety and development.
Consequently, the Convention applies solely to Civil Aircraft.
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Question: 2

Meaning of the Latin phrase ‘ex aequo et bono’ as in legal term, is:

Updated On: Jan 13, 2026
  • According to the equitable and good
  • On the basis of equity and fairness
  • Both (A) and (B)
  • None of the above
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Defining the legal term "ex aequo et bono" requires understanding its meaning in international law and its importance:
Meaning:

The Latin phrase "ex aequo et bono," used mainly in international arbitration, means "according to the equitable and good." It allows decisions based on fairness, equity, and what is just, rather than solely on existing law.

Correct Answer:

The correct definition of 'ex aequo et bono' is "According to the equitable and good." This option is commonly accepted in legal sources.

Contextual Application:

In arbitration and similar dispute resolutions, parties might agree to resolve disputes ex aequo et bono. This gives the arbitrator the freedom to decide based on fairness and equity instead of being bound by past rulings or strict legal interpretation. This is useful in international disputes where different legal systems might clash.

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Question: 3

The Economic and Social Council consists of 54 Members of the United Nations elected by the General Assembly distributed as:

Updated On: Jan 13, 2026
  • African States and Asia Pacific States
  • Eastern European, Western European and other States
  • Latin American and Caribbean States
  • All of the Above
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

The UN's Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) coordinates the economic and social work of 15 UN specialized agencies, commissions, and five regional commissions. With 54 members elected by the General Assembly for three-year terms, ECOSOC ensures broad geographical representation through regional groupings.
The 54 members are distributed to represent diverse regional blocs, fostering diversity in discussions. Possible groupings within the council include:
  • African and Asia-Pacific States
  • Eastern European, Western European, and other States
  • Latin American and Caribbean States
  • All of the Above
The correct answer is Eastern European, Western European, and other States, as these groupings accurately reflect the diversity and geographic distribution of ECOSOC's current membership, adhering to UN principles.
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Question: 4

Under which Art. of UN Charter General Assembly may establish such subsidiary organs as it deems necessary for the performance of its functions?

Updated On: Jan 13, 2026
  • Art. 19 of UN Charter
  • Art. 20 of UN Charter
  • Art. 21 of UN Charter
  • Art. 22 of UN Charter
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The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

To identify the UN Charter article authorizing the General Assembly to create subsidiary organs, consider the following:
The pertinent Article is: Art. 22 of UN Charter.
This clarifies the context of international organizations, particularly the influence of the UN and its Charter on international law. The UN Charter, a fundamental document, defines the UN's structure and functions, including its organs and their operations.
Article 22 of the UN Charter specifically empowers the General Assembly to establish necessary subsidiary organs to fulfill its duties. This allows the Assembly to create committees or bodies to address specific issues within its mandate.
In short, Article 22 is the specific provision enabling the UN General Assembly to create subsidiary organs, supporting its objectives and responsibilities.
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Question: 5

Article 21 of the Constitution of WHO, each Member has undertaken the obligation to take action acceptance on Conventions adopted by:

Updated On: Jan 13, 2026
  • One third votes of the Health Assembly
  • Two-third votes of the Health Assembly
  • Special Majority means Three-Fourth votes of the Health Assembly
  • All of the above
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

To establish the correct process for accepting conventions under Article 21 of the WHO Constitution, we examine the necessary voting requirements. Conventions, as per the WHO Constitution, are approved when a specific vote threshold is met within the Health Assembly. The available options include:
  • One third of the Health Assembly votes
  • Two-thirds of the Health Assembly votes
  • Special Majority meaning Three-fourths of the Health Assembly votes
  • All of the above
The correct procedure, as per Article 21, requires conventions to be accepted with a Two-thirds of the Health Assembly votes. This ensures a substantial majority of member states agree before adoption, indicating broad agreement. Therefore, the correct answer is Two-thirds of the Health Assembly votes.
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Top Questions on Public International Law

Questions Asked in CLAT PG exam

An unpleasant tussle ensured between the TATA Sons and Cyrus Pallonji Mistry (“CPM”) in October 2016, when Mistry, who was the sixth chairman of Tata Sons, was ousted from the position of Executive Chairman of Tata Sons Limited. CPM took over as the chairman in 2012 after Ratan Tata announced his retirement. Tata Group patriarch Ratan Tata had personally asked Cyrus Mistry to resign as chairman of Tata Sons as the board had lost faith in him, but his refusal led to the removal via majority vote. Cyrus Investments Private limited and Sterling Investment Corporation Private Limited belonged to the Shapoorji Palloni Group in which CPM held a controlling interest (about 2% of the issued share capital of Tata Sons). Seven out of the nine directors of Tata Sons voted for CPM’s replacement after Farida Khambata abstained and Mistry was declared ineligible to vote as he was an interested director. Mistry challenged his removal, accusing the board of mismanagement and of oppressing minority shareholders. however, the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) rejected his petition. After this Mistry challenged his removal in National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT). In 2018, NCLAT order restored Mistry as the group’s executive chairman. Tata Sons challenged that NCLAT order in Supreme Court. CPM also challenged the order for few more relief. Supreme Court stayed NCLAT’s order reinstating Cyrus Mistry as the executive chairman of Tata Sons and restoring his directorships in the holding company as well as three group companies, with a preliminary observation that the first impression of the order was “not good” and that the tribunal ‘could’ not have given consequential relief that had not been sought in the first place. Ultimately, the Supreme Court decided the case in favour of Tata Sons. One of the issues decided by Supreme Court was that “whether the case was fit to be qualified as a situation of ‘Oppression and Mismanagement’ under Section 241 of the Companies Act, 2013?”. On this issue, the Supreme Court observed that “unless the removal of a person as a chairman of a company is oppressive or mismanaged or done in a prejudicial manner damaging the interests of the company, its members or the public at large, the NCLT cannot interfere with the removal of a person as a Chairman of a Company in a petition under Section 241 of the Companies Act, 2013.” This case highlighted the point that “an executive chairman does not have sovereign authority over the company. In corporate democracy, decision making always remains with the Board as long as they enjoy the pleasure of the shareholders. Likewise, an executive chairman will continue as long as he/she enjoys the pleasure of the Board. An assumption by the executive chairman that he/she would have a free hand in running the affairs of the company is incongruous to corporate governance and corporate democracy. The Tribunal held that the concept of ‘free hand rule’ is antithesis to collective responsibility and collective decision making”.
[Based on Tata Consultancy Services Ltd. v. Cyrus Investment Pvt. Ltd., 2021 SCC 122].
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Alastair Hudson in his book ‘Securities Law’ First Edition (Sweet & Maxwell), 2008 at page 342, refers to ‘Restricted Offers’ and noticed that there is no contravention of Section 85 of FSMA 2000, if: “(b) the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 100 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State”. The purpose underlying that exemption, the author says, is mainly the fact that the offer is not being made to an appreciable section of “the public” such that the policy of the prospectus rules generally is not affected. Further, the author says that “Self-evidently, while an offer to 99 ordinary members of the public would be within the literal terms of the exemption, it would not be the sort of activity anticipated by the legislation. Moreover, if a marketing campaign were arranged such that ordinary members of the people were approached in groups of 99 people at a time in an effort to avoid the prospectus rules, then that would not appear to be within the spirit of the regulations and might be held to contravene the core principle that a regulated person must act with integrity.”
I may, therefore, indicate, subject to what has been stated above, in India that any share or debenture issue beyond forty-nine persons, would be a public issue attracting all the relevant provisions of the SEBI Act, regulations framed thereunder, the Companies Act, pertaining to the public issue. Facts clearly reveal that Saharas have issued securities to the public more than the threshold limit statutorily fixed under the first proviso to Section 67(3) and hence violated the listing provisions which may attract civil and criminal liabilities. Principles of listing, which I may later on discuss, is intended to assist public companies in identifying their obligations and responsibilities, which are continuing in nature, transparent in content and call for high degree of integrity. Obligations are imposed on the issuer on an ongoing basis. Public companies who are legally obliged to list their securities are deemed to accept the continuing obligations, by virtue of their application, prospectus and the subsequent maintenance of listing on a recognized stock exchange. Disclosure is the rule, there is no exception. Misleading public is a serious crime, which may attract civil and criminal liability. Listing of securities depends not upon one’s volition, but on statutory mandate.
[Extract from Sahara India Real Estate Corporation Limited v. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Para 89-91, Civil Appeal No. 9833/2011 (SC)]
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The aim of the rules of natural justice is to secure justice or to put it negatively to prevent miscarriage of justice. These rules can operate only in areas not covered by any law validly made. In other words, they do not supplant the law of the land but supplement it. The concept of natural justice has undergone a great deal of change in recent years. In the past, it was thought that it included just two rules namely: (1) no one shall be a judge in his own case (Nemo debet esse judex propria causa) and (2) no decision shall be given against a party without affording him a reasonable hearing (audi alteram partem).
Very soon thereafter a third rule was envisaged and that is that quasi-judicial enquiries must be held in good faith, without bias and not arbitrarily or unreasonably. But in the course of years many more subsidiary rules came to be added to the rules of natural justice. Till very recently it was the opinion of the courts that unless the authority concerned was required by the law under which it functioned to act judicially there was no room for the application of the rules of natural justice. The validity of that limitation is not questioned.
If the purpose of the rules of natural justice is to prevent miscarriage of justice one fails to see why those rules should be made inapplicable to administrative enquiries. Often times it is not easy to draw the line that demarcates administrative enquiries from quasi-judicial enquiries. Enquiries which were considered administrative at one time are now being considered as quasi-judicial in character. Arriving at a just decision is the aim of both quasi-judicial enquiries as well as administrative enquiries. An unjust decision in an administrative enquiry may have more far reaching effect than a decision in a quasi-judicial enquiry as observed by this Court in Suresh Koshy George v. University of Kerala [Civil Appeal No. 990/68, decided on 15-07- 1968], the rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. What particular rule of natural justice should apply to a given case must depend to a great extent on the facts and circumstances of that case, the framework of the law under which the enquiry is held and the constitution of the Tribunal or body of persons appointed for that purpose. Whenever a complaint is made before a court that some principle of natural justice had been contravened the court has to decide whether the observance of that rule was necessary for a just decision on the facts of that case.
[Extract from the judgment of the Supreme Court in A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, (1969) 2 SCC 262, decided on April 29, 1969, hereafter ‘A.K. Kraipak’].
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The doctrine of promissory estoppel is by now well recognized and well defined by a catena of decisions of this Court. Where the Government makes a promise knowing or intending that it would be acted on by the promise and, in fact, the promise, acting in reliance on it, alters his position, the Government would be held bound by the promise and the promise would be enforceable against the Government at the instance of the promise notwithstanding that there is no consideration for the promise and the promise is not recorded in the form of a formal contract as required by Article 229 of the Constitution. The rule of promissory estoppel being an equitable doctrine has to be moulded to suit the particular situation. It is not a hard-and-fast rule but an elastic one, the objective of which is to do justice between the parties and to extend an equitable treatment to them. This doctrine is a principle evolved by equity, to avoid injustice and though commonly named promissory estoppel, it is neither in the realm of contract nor in the realm of estoppel. For application of the doctrine of promissory estoppel the promise must establish that he suffered in detriment or altered his position by reliance on the promise.
Normally, the doctrine of promissory estoppel is being applied against the Government and defence based on executive necessity would not be accepted by the court. However, if it can be shown by the Government that having regard to the facts as they have subsequently transpired, it would be inequitable to hold the Government to the promise made by it, the court would not raise an equity in favour of the promise and enforce the promise against the Government. Where public interest warrants, the principles of promissory estoppel cannot be invoked. The Government can change the policy in public interest. However, it is well settled that taking cue from this doctrine, the authority cannot be compelled to do something which is not allowed by law or prohibited by law. There is no promissory estoppel against the settled proposition of law. Doctrine of promissory estoppel cannot be invoked for enforcement of a promise made contrary to law, because none can be compelled to act against the statute. Thus, the Government or public authority cannot be compelled to make a provision which is contrary to law.
[Extract from the judgment of the Supreme Court in Shree Sidhbali Steels Limited v. State of Uttar Pradesh, (2011) 3 SCC 193, decided on January 20, 2011, hereafter ‘Shree Sidhbali Steels’].
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