Question:medium
$\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \log\left( \frac{\cos x}{\sin x} \right)\, dx$ is equal to:
$\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \log\left( \frac{\cos x}{\sin x} \right)\, dx$ is equal to:
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For definite integrals involving ratios of $\sin$ and $\cos$ within a logarithm from $0$ to $\pi/2$, the result is almost always zero because the "Kings Property" flips the ratio, and their sum results in $\log(1)$.
Updated On: May 2, 2026
- $\frac{\pi}{2}$
- $\frac{\pi}{4}$
- $\pi$
- $2\pi$
- $0$
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The Correct Option is
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