A cleaner way to settle this is to test the Cauchy Riemann equations directly on $u$ and $v$ instead of quoting the known derivative of $\log z$.
With $u = \frac{1}{2}\log_e(x^2+y^2)$ and $v = \tan^{-1}(y/x)$, take partial derivatives: $u_x = \frac{x}{x^2+y^2}$, $u_y = \frac{y}{x^2+y^2}$, $v_x = \frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}$, $v_y = \frac{x}{x^2+y^2}$.
Check $u_x = v_y$: both equal $\frac{x}{x^2+y^2}$, true. Check $u_y = -v_x$: $u_y = \frac{y}{x^2+y^2}$ and $-v_x = \frac{y}{x^2+y^2}$, also true. Both hold at every point except $x^2+y^2=0$, meaning $z=0$, so $w$ is analytic on the whole plane except that point.
The Cauchy Riemann check confirms option A: analytic everywhere except at $z = 0$.