If the sum of mean and variance of a binomial distribution for 5 trials is 1.8, then probability of a success is
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For binomial distributions, variance is always less than the mean because $\sigma^2 = \mu \times (1-p)$. Since $(1-p)$ is a fraction, multiplying the mean by it reduces the value.
Step 1: Recall binomial mean and variance.
For $n$ trials with success chance $p$ and failure chance $q = 1 - p$: mean $= np$ and variance $= npq$. Here $n = 5$.
Step 6: Solve and pick the valid root.
This factors to $(p - 0.2)(p - 1.8) = 0$. Since $p$ must be at most 1, we take $p = 0.2$.
\[ \boxed{p = 0.2 \text{ (Option 1)}} \]