Question:medium

If $f(z) = \frac{z}{\bar{z}}$, then $\lim_{z \to 0} f(z)$

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In complex numbers, $z/\bar{z} = e^{2i\theta}$ in polar coordinates $z = r e^{i\theta}$. As $r \to 0$, $f(z) = e^{2i\theta}$, which depends on the angle of approach $\theta$. Therefore, the limit at $z=0$ fails to exist!
Updated On: Jul 29, 2026
  • exists and equal to 0.
  • does not exist.
  • exists and equal to 1.
  • exists and equal to $-1$.
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The Correct Option is B

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