Question:medium

If a random variable $X$ has the p.d.f. $f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{k}{x^2+1} & , \text{if } 0<x<\infty \\ 0 & , \text{otherwise} \end{cases}$ then c.d.f. of X is

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Always normalize p.d.f. first before finding c.d.f.
Updated On: May 14, 2026
  • $2 \tan^{-1} x$
  • $\frac{\pi}{2} \tan^{-1} x$
  • $\frac{2}{\pi} \tan^{-1} x$
  • $\tan^{-1} x$
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The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
For a function $f(x)$ to be a valid Probability Density Function (p.d.f.), the total area under its curve must equal 1, i.e., $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) dx = 1$. We utilize this property to determine the constant $k$. The Cumulative Distribution Function (c.d.f.), denoted $F(x)$, is then calculated by integrating the p.d.f. from $-\infty$ up to $x$. Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
1. Normalization property of p.d.f.: $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) dx = 1$. 2. Definition of c.d.f.: $F(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{x} f(t) dt$. 3. Standard integration formula: $\int \frac{1}{x^2+1} dx = \tan^{-1} x + C$. Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
First, find the constant $k$ using the property that the total probability must be 1: \[ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) dx = 1 \] Given the piecewise definition, $f(x)$ is non-zero only for $x>0$: \[ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{k}{x^2+1} dx = 1 \] Evaluate the integral: \[ k \left[ \tan^{-1} x \right]_0^\infty = 1 \] \[ k \left( \lim_{x \to \infty} \tan^{-1} x - \tan^{-1} 0 \right) = 1 \] Substitute the known values: $\lim_{x \to \infty} \tan^{-1} x = \frac{\pi}{2}$ and $\tan^{-1} 0 = 0$. \[ k \left( \frac{\pi}{2} - 0 \right) = 1 \] \[ k \cdot \frac{\pi}{2} = 1 \implies k = \frac{2}{\pi} \] So, the proper p.d.f. is $f(x) = \frac{2}{\pi(x^2+1)}$ for $x>0$.
Now, calculate the c.d.f. $F(x)$ for an arbitrary $x>0$: \[ F(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{x} f(t) dt = \int_{-\infty}^{0} 0 \,dt + \int_{0}^{x} \frac{2}{\pi(t^2+1)} dt \] \[ F(x) = 0 + \frac{2}{\pi} \left[ \tan^{-1} t \right]_0^x \] Evaluate at the limits: \[ F(x) = \frac{2}{\pi} (\tan^{-1} x - \tan^{-1} 0) \] \[ F(x) = \frac{2}{\pi} \tan^{-1} x \] Step 4: Final Answer:
The c.d.f. is $\frac{2}{\pi} \tan^{-1} x$.
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