Question:hard

If $a_n = \sum_{r=0}^n \frac{1}{^{n}C_r}$ and $b_n = \sum_{r=0}^n \frac{r}{^{n}C_r}$, then $\frac{b_n}{a_n} =$

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For a quick test, substitute a small value like $n = 1$. This gives $a_1 = \frac{1}{1} + \frac{1}{1} = 2$ and $b_1 = \frac{0}{1} + \frac{1}{1} = 1$. The ratio is $\frac{1}{2}$, which matches $\frac{n}{2}$.
Updated On: Jun 3, 2026
  • $n$
  • $\frac{n}{2}$
  • $\frac{n}{3}$
  • $n - 1$
Show Solution

The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: The key symmetry trick.
Binomial coefficients are symmetric: $^{n}C_r = {}^{n}C_{n-r}$. So a sum looks the same if we replace $r$ by $n-r$. We will use this to link $b_n$ with $a_n$.

Step 2: Write the same sum backwards.
In $b_n = \sum \frac{r}{{}^{n}C_r}$, replace $r$ with $n-r$. The bottom stays the same by symmetry, only the top changes: \[ b_n = \sum_{r=0}^{n} \frac{n-r}{{}^{n}C_r} \]

Step 3: Add the two forms of $b_n$.
Add the original and the reversed version term by term: \[ 2b_n = \sum_{r=0}^{n} \frac{r + (n-r)}{{}^{n}C_r} \]

Step 4: Simplify the top.
The top becomes just $n$, a constant: \[ 2b_n = n \sum_{r=0}^{n} \frac{1}{{}^{n}C_r} \]

Step 5: Recognise $a_n$.
That leftover sum is exactly $a_n$. So \[ 2b_n = n\, a_n \]

Step 6: Form the ratio.
Divide both sides by $2a_n$: \[ \boxed{ \frac{b_n}{a_n} = \frac{n}{2} } \]
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