Question:hard

If \(3sin^{-1}(\frac{2x}{1+x^2})-4cos^{-1}(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2})+2tan^{-1}(\frac{2x}{1-x^2}) = \frac{π}{3}\) then \(x = ?\)

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Convert each inverse function to 2 tan inverse x, valid for x between 0 and 1.
Updated On: Oct 1, 2026
  • \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • \(1\)
  • \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • \(-1\)
Show Solution

The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Approach
Substitute $x=\tan\theta$ so that each expression turns into a double-angle formula.

Step 2: Substitution
$\dfrac{2x}{1+x^2}=\sin2\theta$, $\dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}=\cos2\theta$, $\dfrac{2x}{1-x^2}=\tan2\theta$. For small positive $\theta$ (so $2\theta$ stays in the principal ranges) each inverse function returns $2\theta$.

Step 3: Equation
$6\theta-8\theta+4\theta=\dfrac\pi3$, so $2\theta=\dfrac\pi3$ and $\theta=\dfrac\pi6$.

Step 4: Answer
$x=\tan\dfrac\pi6=\dfrac1{\sqrt3}$, option (C).

Final Answer:
The equation reduces to $2\tan^{-1}x=\pi/3$, so $x=1/\sqrt3$, option (C). \[ \boxed{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}} \]
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