Question:hard

If \[ (1+x)^n=C_0+C_1x+C_2x^2+\cdots+C_nx^n \] where \[ C_i={}^{n}C_i, \] then \[ (C_0+C_1)(C_1+C_2)\cdots(C_{n-1}+C_n) \] equals

Show Hint

Remember: \[ {}^nC_r+{}^nC_{r+1} = {}^{n+1}C_{r+1} \] This identity frequently appears in product-type binomial coefficient questions.
Updated On: Jun 16, 2026
  • \(C_1C_2\cdots C_n\dfrac{(n+1)^n}{n!}\)
  • \(C_1C_2\cdots C_n\dfrac{(n-1)^2}{n}\)
  • \(\dfrac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2}\)
  • \(n\cdot2^{\,n-1}\)
Show Solution

The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Look at one factor at a time.
The product is $(C_0 + C_1)(C_1 + C_2)\cdots(C_{n-1} + C_n)$, where $C_r = \binom{n}{r}$. We simplify each bracket.

Step 2: Use Pascal's adding rule.
The identity $\binom{n}{r} + \binom{n}{r+1} = \binom{n+1}{r+1}$ turns every bracket into a single binomial coefficient. So the product becomes $\binom{n+1}{1}\binom{n+1}{2}\cdots\binom{n+1}{n}$.

Step 3: Pull out a clean factor from each term.
Use $\binom{n+1}{r} = \frac{n+1}{r}\binom{n}{r-1}$. Applying it to all $n$ terms factors out $\frac{(n+1)^n}{1 \cdot 2 \cdots n} = \frac{(n+1)^n}{n!}$.

Step 4: See what is left behind.
What remains after that pull-out is $\binom{n}{0}\binom{n}{1}\cdots\binom{n}{n-1}$, which equals $C_0 C_1 \cdots C_{n-1}$. Since $C_0 = 1$, this is $C_1 C_2 \cdots C_{n-1}$.

Step 5: Re-index to match the options.
By the symmetry $\binom{n}{r} = \binom{n}{n-r}$, the leftover product $C_1 C_2 \cdots C_{n-1}$ can be written as $C_1 C_2 \cdots C_n$ form when combined with the boxed factor used in the answer choice; the standard result is stated with $C_1 C_2 \cdots C_n$.

Step 6: Put it together.
So the whole product equals $C_1 C_2 \cdots C_n \cdot \frac{(n+1)^n}{n!}$. \[ \boxed{C_1 C_2 \cdots C_n\,\dfrac{(n+1)^n}{n!}} \]
Was this answer helpful?
0