Step 1: Picture the curve near the point of interest.
Since every coefficient of this degree-5 polynomial is positive and $x>0$, the graph of $f$ bends upward (is convex) throughout this region; $f''(x)$ is a sum of positive terms for $x>0$, so $f''(x)>0$ everywhere here.
Step 2: Interpret the forward difference as a secant line's slope.
The forward difference $\dfrac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$ is exactly the slope of the straight line (secant) joining the points $(x,f(x))$ and $(x+h,f(x+h))$ on the curve. For a convex curve, a secant drawn just ahead of a point always lies above the tangent line at that point, so its slope is steeper than the tangent's slope, meaning the forward difference OVER-estimates the true derivative, never under-estimates. This already makes statement (I) FALSE.
Step 3: Interpret the backward difference the same way.
The backward difference $\dfrac{f(x)-f(x-h)}{h}$ is the slope of the secant joining $(x-h,f(x-h))$ and $(x,f(x))$, the secant drawn just behind the point. For a convex curve this trailing secant is always less steep than the tangent at $x$, since the curve was rising more gently just before $x$ than it is rising exactly at $x$. So the backward difference UNDER-estimates the true derivative, never over-estimates. This makes statement (II) FALSE too.
Step 4: Put both pictures together.
For any convex function, the forward-difference secant always over-shoots the tangent slope and the backward-difference secant always under-shoots it, this follows from the mean value theorem applied on either side of the point. Both given statements describe the reverse behaviour, so both are wrong.
Final Answer:
Both statement (I) and statement (II) are FALSE, option (A). \[ \boxed{\text{Both (I) and (II) are FALSE}} \]