Question:medium

A 30 year old male presents with a history of consumption of some unknown substance. The attending doctor notices the person to be having diaphoresis, headache and acute coronary spasm like features. The person is least likely to show which clinical feature?

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Think about the sympathomimetic effects of cocaine -- which vital sign change would be opposite to what cocaine causes?
Updated On: Jun 23, 2026
  • Bradycardia
  • Tachycardia
  • Hyperthermia
  • Hypertension
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Toxicological reasoning:
The clinical triad of diaphoresis + coronary spasm + headache in a young male = cocaine overdose.

Cocaine mechanism: blocks $\text{norepinephrine/dopamine/serotonin}$ reuptake transporters --> sympathetic surge.

Expected features:
- Tachycardia (sympathetic stimulation)
- Hypertension (alpha-1 mediated vasoconstriction)
- Hyperthermia ('Cocaine Fever' -- increased metabolic rate)
- Coronary vasospasm -- risk of MI even in young patients
- Diaphoresis

$\text{Bradycardia}$ is a parasympathomimetic feature; cocaine is predominantly a sympathomimetic -- bradycardia is the LEAST likely finding.
\[\boxed{\text{Bradycardia}}\]
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