Question:hard
A 27 year old woman who had delivered a female child 9 months back, came to the gynaecologist with complaints of absent periods since child birth. She has been using contraceptive methods as a family control measure. She was advised to get her serum beta hCG levels tested, which came out as 4.9 mIU/ml. Her prolactin level was 88 ng/ml, and TSH was 3.8. What could be the reason for amenorrhea in this case?
A 27 year old woman who had delivered a female child 9 months back, came to the gynaecologist with complaints of absent periods since child birth. She has been using contraceptive methods as a family control measure. She was advised to get her serum beta hCG levels tested, which came out as 4.9 mIU/ml. Her prolactin level was 88 ng/ml, and TSH was 3.8. What could be the reason for amenorrhea in this case?
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High prolactin due to breastfeeding suppresses GnRH, preventing ovulation and menstruation.
Updated On: Jun 23, 2026
- Normal pregnancy
- Lactational amenorrhea
- Hypothyroidism
- Prolactinoma
Show Solution
The Correct Option is B
Solution and Explanation
Analysis: beta-hCG = 4.9 mIU/ml (negative, rules out pregnancy); TSH = 3.8 (normal, rules out hypothyroidism); Prolactin = 88 ng/ml (elevated but physiological in a breastfeeding mother). Mechanism of lactational amenorrhea: infant suckling stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete prolactin and simultaneously inhibits hypothalamic GnRH pulse secretion. Reduced GnRH leads to low FSH and LH, preventing ovarian folliculogenesis and ovulation. Result: amenorrhea persisting as long as active breastfeeding continues. Prolactinoma is unlikely at this prolactin level in the setting of recent delivery. \[\boxed{\text{Lactational amenorrhea (Option B)}}\]
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